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Q1. Which three descriptions are correct about the effects of the TRUNCATE command on a table?

(Choose three.)

A. The corresponding indexes for the table are also truncated.

B. Delete triggers on the table are fired during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.

C. The child table is truncated when the TRUNCATE command is applied on the parent table.

D. The highwater mark (HWM) is set to point to the first usable data block in the table segment.

E. No undo or very little undo data is generated during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.

Answer: ADE


Q2. View the Exhibit to examine the output for the CROSSCHECK BACKUP command.

Which statement is true about the output of the command?

A. The backup piece is expired as the new backup is available

B. The backup piece is expired because the operating-system file was not found

C. The backup piece is expired because the retention period for the backup has expired

D. The backup piece is expired because the backup set to which it belongs is not complete

Answer: B


Q3. Which two statements are true regarding listeners? (Choose two.)

A. Listeners use only the TCP/IP protocol.

B. Multiple listener processes can run simultaneously on a host.

C. Multiple database instances can be registered with a single listener.

D. The listener-related errors can be traced only at the administrative level.

E. Only one database instance can be registered with a single listener at any time.

Answer: BC


Q4. You have an ORDERS table with the following structure:

The table has data in the ODATE column for all rows. Many orders are placed in a single day. You need to ensure that the ODATE column must contain data for every order in future.

Which method would serve the purpose?

A. Modify the column using the ALTER TABLE ... MODIFY command.

B. Add a UNIQUE constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE ... ADD CONSTRAINT command.

C. Add a NOT NULL constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE ... ADD CONSTRAINT command.

D. Add a PRIMARY KEY constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE ... ADD CONSTRAINT command.

Answer: A


Q5. Examine the following command that is used to create a table:

Which two statements are true about the effect of the above command? (Choose two.)

A. A CHECK constraint is created on the OID column

B. A NOT NULL constraint is created on the OID column

C. The ORDERS table is the only object created in the USERS tablespace

D. The ORDERS table and a unique index are created in the USERS tablespace

E. The ORDERS table is created in the USERS tablepsace and a unique index is created on the

OID column in the SYSTEM tablespace

Answer: BD


Q6. Examine the values for the following initialization parameters:

FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=0

LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=0

Which two will be the implications of these values in your database? (Choose two.)

A. The SGA advisor will be disabled

B. The MTTR advisor will be disabled

C. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be disabled

D. Checkpoint information will not be written to the alert log file

Answer: BC


Q7. After performing a clean shut down of the database instance for maintenance, you mount the database and then execute a command to open the database:

SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN;

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The online redo log files and online data files are opened

B. All the online data files headers are checked for consistency

C. Instance recovery is performed before opening the database

D. The path and existence of all the log file members are checked

Answer: AB


Q8. You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restarted the database:

MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0

MEMORY_TARGET=500M

PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=90M

SGA_TARGET=270M

Which two statements are true about these parameters after the database instance is restarted?

(Choose two.)

A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.

B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.

C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero until it is changed manually.

D. The lower bounds of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB, respectively.

Answer: AD


Q9. View Exhibit1 and Exhibit2 to examine the current memory allocation and parameter settings, respectively. Why are advisors not available for the shared pool and the buffer cache?

A. because the DB_CACHE_ADVICE parameter is set to OFF

B. because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is disabled for the database instance

C. because Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for the database instance

D. because the values for the DB_CACHE_SIZE and SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameters were not set initially

Answer: C


Q10. Which two statements describe good practices for an application developer to reduce locking conflicts in Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Avoid coding unnecessary longrunning transactions.

B. Allow the database to handle locks in default locking mode.

C. Always explicitly code the locks as per the requirement of the application.

D. Allow escalation of row locks to block locks if too many row locks cause problem.

Answer: AB