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Q51. Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders? 






Q52. The helpdesk was asked to provide a record of delivery for an important email message that a customer claims it did not receive. Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance provides this record? 

A. Outgoing Mail Reports 

B. SMTP Routes 

C. Message Tracking 

D. Scheduled Reports 

E. System Administration 


Q53. Connections are being denied because of SenderBase Reputation Scores. Which two features must be enabled in order to record those connections in the mail log on the Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) 

A. Rejected Connection Handling 

B. Domain Debug Logs 

C. Injection Debug Logs 

D. Message Tracking 

Answer: A,D 

Q54. Refer to the exhibit. 

What Cisco ESA CLI command generated the output? 

A. smtproutes 

B. tophosts C. hoststatus 

D. workqueuestatus 


Q55. Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control? 

A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances 

B. Cisco remote-access VPNs 

C. Cisco IronPort WSA 

D. Cisco IPS 


Q56. Which configuration mode enables a virtual sensor to monitor the session state for unidirectional traffic? 

A. asymmetric mode 

B. symmetric mode 

C. loose mode 

D. strict mode 


Q57. Which Cisco Cloud Web Security Connector feature allows access by all of an organization's users while applying Active Directory group policies? 

A. a company authentication key 

B. a group authentication key 

C. a PAC file 

D. proxy forwarding 

E. a user authentication key 


Q58. Which two design considerations are required to add the Cisco Email Security Appliance to an existing mail delivery chain? (Choose two.) 

A. Existing MX records should be maintained and policy routing should be used to redirect traffic to the ESA. 

B. Update the MX records to point to the inbound listener interfaces on the ESA. 

C. Update the MX records to point to the outbound listener interfaces on the ESA. 

D. Different Listeners must be used to handle inbound and outbound mail handling. 

E. The ESA should be connected to the same subnet as the Email Server because it maintains only a single routing table. 

F. The ESA can be connected to a DMZ external to the Email Server because it maintains multiple routing tables. 

G. The ESA can be connected to a DMZ external to the Email Server but it maintains only a single routing table. 

H. Mail Listeners by default can share the same IP interface by defining the routes for sending and receiving. 

Answer: B,G 

Q59. Which three statements about threat ratings are true? (Choose three.) 

A. A threat rating is equivalent to a risk rating that has been lowered by an alert rating. 

B. The largest threat rating from all actioned events is added to the risk rating. 

C. The smallest threat rating from all actioned events is subtracted from the risk rating. 

D. The alert rating for deny-attacker-inline is 45. 

E. Unmitigated events do not cause a threat rating modification. 

F. The threat rating for deny-attacker-inline is 50. 

Answer: A,D,E 

Q60. What are three features of the Cisco Security Intellishield Alert Manager Service? (Choose three.) 

A. validation of alerts by security analysts 

B. custom notifications 

C. complete threat and vulnerability remediation 

D. vendor-specific threat analysis 

E. workflow-management tools 

F. real-time threat and vulnerability mitigation 

Answer: A,B,E