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2021 Jun 350-018 free exam questions
Q171. Which statement about the HTTP protocol is true?
A. The request method does not include the protocol version.
B. The proxy acts as an intermediary receiving agent in the request-response chain.
C. The tunnel acts as an intermediary relay agent in the request-response chain.
D. The gateway acts as an intermediary forwarding agent in the request-response chain.
E. The success and error codes are returned in the response message by the user-agent.
Q172. Which two options correctly describe Remote Triggered Black Hole Filtering (RFC 5635)? (Choose two.)
A. RTBH destination based filtering can drop traffic destined to a host based on triggered entries in the FIB.
B. RTBH source based filtering will drop traffic from a source destined to a host based on triggered entries in the RIB
C. Loose uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH destination based filtering
D. Strict uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH source based filtering
E. RTBH uses a discard route on the edge devices of the network and a route server to send triggered route updates
F. When setting the BGP community attribute in a route-map for RTBH use the no-export community unless BGP confederations are used then use local-as to advertise to sub-as confederations
Q173. Regarding VSAs, which statement is true?
A. VSAs may be implemented on any RADIUS server.
B. VSAs are proprietary, and therefore may only be used on the RADIUS server of that vendor. For example, a Cisco VSA may only be used on a Cisco RADIUS server, such as ACS or ISE.
C. VSAs do not apply to RADIUS; they are a TACACS attribute.
D. Each VSA is defined in an RFC and is considered to be a standard.
Q174. An internal DNS server requires a NAT on a Cisco IOS router that is dual-homed to separate ISPs using distinct CIDR blocks. Which NAT capability is required to allow hosts in each CIDR block to contact the DNS server via one translated address?
A. NAT overload
B. NAT extendable
C. NAT TCP load balancing
D. NAT service-type DNS
E. NAT port-to-application mapping
Q175. What is the commonly known name for the process of generating and gathering initialization vectors, either passively or actively, for the purpose of determining the security key of a wireless network?
A. WEP cracking
B. session hijacking
C. man-in-the-middle attacks
D. disassociation flood frames
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Q176. What are two reasons for a certificate to appear in a CRL? (Choose two.)
A. CA key compromise
B. cessation of operation
C. validity expiration
D. key length incompatibility
E. certification path invalidity
Q177. Which Cisco technology protects against Spanning Tree Protocol manipulation?
A. spanning-tree protection
B. root guard and BPDU guard
C. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
D. MAC spoof guard
E. port security
Q178. Which four functionalities are built into the ISE? (Choose four.)
A. Profiling Server
B. Profiling Collector
C. RADIUS AAA for Device Administration
D. RADIUS AAA for Network Access
E. TACACS+ for Device Administration
F. TACACS+ for Network Access
G. Guest Lifecycle Management
Q179. Which item is not encrypted by ESP?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. IP header
E. TCP-UDP header
Q180. Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. The peer session is dropped when 80 prefixes are received.
B. A warning message is displayed when 1000 prefixes are received.
C. The peer session is dropped when 800 prefixes are received.
D. An Initial warning message is displayed when 800 prefixes are received. A different message is displayed when 1000 prefixes received.and the session will not be disconnected
E. An Initial warning message is displayed when 80 prefixes received. The same warning message is displayed when 1000 prefixes are received.and the session will be disconnected.