Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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2021 Jun 400-101 Study Guide Questions:
Q71. Which two options are disadvantages of a commingled dual-tier WAN rate-based Ethernet circuit? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the maintenance of separate chassis.
B. It has limited scalability.
C. It requires additional CPU resources at the subscriber end.
D. It is more difficult to secure.
E. It can increase the likelihood of packet drops.
Q72. Which two options describe two functions of a neighbor solicitation message? (Choose two.)
A. It requests the link-layer address of the target.
B. It provides its own link-layer address to the target.
C. It requests the site-local address of the target.
D. It provides its own site-local address to the target.
E. It requests the admin-local address of the target.
F. It provides its own admin-local address to the target.
Neighbor solicitation messages are sent on the local link when a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node on the same local link (see the figure below). When a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node, the source address in a neighbor solicitation message is the IPv6 address of the node sending the neighbor solicitation message. The destination address in the neighbor solicitation message is the solicited-node multicast address that corresponds to the IPv6 address of the destination node. The neighbor solicitation message also includes the link-layer address of the source node.
Figure 1. IPv6 Neighbor Discovery: Neighbor Solicitation Message
After receiving the neighbor solicitation message, the destination node replies by sending a neighbor advertisement message, which has a value of 136 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, on the local link. The source address in the neighbor advertisement message is the IPv6 address of the node (more specifically, the IPv6 address of the node interface) sending the neighbor advertisement message. The destination address in the neighbor advertisement message is the IPv6 address of the node that sent the neighbor solicitation message. The data portion of the neighbor advertisement message includes the link-layer address of the node sending the neighbor advertisement message. After the source node receives the neighbor advertisement, the source node and destination node can communicate.
Q73. Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Configure the activation-character command.
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port.
C. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15.
D. Configure an ACL.
The activation-character command defines a session activation character. Entering this character at a vacant terminal begins a terminal session. The default activation character is the Return key
To secure the console port, you should change this character to a different one as most people simply hit the enter key when trying to access the console.
Up to date actual tests 400-101:
Q74. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true about the downward bit?
A. It forces the CE router to use a backup link instead of sending traffic via MPLS VPN.
B. It informs the PE router that the LSA metric has been recently decreased to 1 and that partial SPF calculation cannot be delayed.
C. It forces the CE router to install the LSA with the downward bit set into its routing table as a discard route.
D. It informs the PE router that the LSA was already redistributed into BGP by another PE router and that the LSA must not be redistributed into BGP again.
From RFC 4577, specifically section 188.8.131.52
When a type 3 LSA is sent from a PE router to a CE router, the DN bit [OSPF-DN] in the LSA Options field MUST be set. This is used to ensure that if any CE router sends this type 3 LSA to a PE router, the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute to a CE router a route that comes from a site outside the latter’s OSPF domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR (Autonomous System Border Router), and distributes the route in a type 5 LSA. The DN bit [OSPF-DN] MUST be set in these LSAs to ensure that they will be ignored by any other PE routers that receive them.
Q75. Which option is a core event publisher for EEM?
B. Policy Director
EEM is a flexible, policy-driven framework that supports in-box monitoring of different components of the system with the help of software agents known as event detectors. The figure below shows the relationship between the EEM server, core event publishers (event detectors), and the event subscribers (policies). Basically, event publishers screen events and publish them when there is a match on an event specification that is provided by the event subscriber. Event detectors notify the EEM server when an event of interest occurs. The EEM policies that are configured using the Cisco command-line interface (CLI) then implement recovery on the basis of the current state of the system and the actions specified in the policy for the given event. EEM offers the ability to monitor events and take informational or corrective action when the monitored events occur or when a threshold is reached. An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script. An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. A script is a form of policy that is written in Tool Command Language (Tcl).
Figure 1. Embedded Event Manager Core Event Detectors
Q76. Which two types of traffic are blocked when the storm control threshold for multicast traffic is reached on a port? (Choose two.)
Certified lpic 101-400:
Q77. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco IOS XE subpackage on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Q78. Which statement about shaped round robin queuing is true?
A. Queues with higher configured weights are serviced first.
B. The device waits a period of time, set by the configured weight, before servicing the next queue.
C. The device services a single queue completely before moving on to the next queue.
D. Shaped mode is available on both the ingress and egress queues.
SRR is scheduling service for specifying the rate at which packets are dequeued. With SRR there are two modes, shaped and shared. Shaped mode is only available on the egress queues SRR differs from typical WRR. With WRR queues are serviced based on the weight. Q1 is serviced for weight 1 period of time, Q2 is served for weight 2 period of time, and so forth.
The servicing mechanism works by moving from queue to queue and services them for the weighted amount of time. With SRR weights are still followed; however, SRR services Q1, moves to Q2, then Q3 and Q4 in a different way. It does not wait at and service each queue for a weighted amount of time before moving on to the next queue. Instead, SRR makes several rapid passes at the queues; in each pass, each queue might or might not be serviced. For each given pass, the more highly weighted queues are more likely to be serviced than the lower priority queues.
Q79. Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation.
B. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity.
C. In IPv6, routers perform fragmentation.
D. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet.
E. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer.
F. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer.
Q80. Which three statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose three.)
A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
F. Unicast RPF loose mode is typically used with ISP networks.