Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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2021 Jun 400-101 Study Guide Questions:
Q231. Which bit should be set in the link-state PDU of an IS-IS L1/L2 router to indicate that it is a potential exit point of the area?
A. the ABR bit
B. the ATT bit
C. the down bit
D. the P bit
Default routing is achieved in two distinct ways with Integrated IS-IS:
. Attached bit—Set by a Level 1/Level 2 router in its own Level 1 LSP and used to indicate to all Level 1 routers (within the area) that this router is a potential exit point of the area. Level 1-only routers will default to the nearest attached Level 2 router.
. Default information originate—Can be configured in Level 1 as well as Level 2. The default route (0.0.0.0/0) is inserted in the router LSP (Level 1 or Level 2, according to the configuration command) and the LSP is flooded according to the router type (Level 1 or Level 2). A Level 2 router doesn't need to have a default route to originate a default route.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sh tml
Q232. Which statement describes the difference between a stub area and a totally stub area?
A. The ABR advertises a default route to a totally stub area and not to a stub area.
B. Stub areas do not allow LSA types 4 and 5, while totally stub areas do not allow LSA types 3, 4, and 5.
C. Totally stub areas allow limited external routes in the area via a special type 7 LSA, while stub areas do not.
D. Stub areas do not allow external LSAs, ASBR summary LSAs, or summary LSAs with the exception of a default route originated by the ABR via a summary LSA.
. Standard areas can contain LSAs of type 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, and may contain an ASBR. The backbone is considered a standard area.
. Stub areas can contain type 1, 2, and 3 LSAs. A default route is substituted for external routes.
. Totally stubby areas can only contain type 1 and 2 LSAs, and a single type 3 LSA. The type 3 LSA describes a default route, substituted for all external and inter-area routes.
. Not-so-stubby areas implement stub or totally stubby functionality yet contain an ASBR. Type 7 LSAs generated by the ASBR are converted to type 5 by ABRs to be flooded to the rest of the OSPF domain.
Q233. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration changes enable you to log in to the router? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a user name and password on the device.
B. Modify the default login authentication group to use the terminal line password.
C. Remove the terminal line password on the console line.
D. Modify the terminal lines to include transport input none.
E. Configure the terminal lines to use the local user database.
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Q234. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TACACS+ configuration command on the left to the correct function it performs on the right.
Q235. Which ICMP message type is used to assist path MTU discovery?
A. destination unreachable
B. redirect message
C. source quench
D. time exceeded
Q236. A floating static route appears in the routing table of an interface even when the interface is unusable.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Remove the permanent option from the static route.
B. Correct the administrative distance.
C. Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table.
D. Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server.
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Q237. Which two statements are true about a 6to4 tunnel connecting two IPv6 islands over the IPv4 Internet? (Choose two.)
A. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 51.
B. It works by appending the private IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
C. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 41.
D. It works by appending the public IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
6to4 embeds an IPv6 packet in the payload portion of an IPv4 packet with protocol type 41. To send an IPv6 packet over an IPv4 network to a 6to4 destination address, an IPv4
header with protocol type 41 is prepended to the IPv6 packet. The IPv4 destination address for the prepended packet header is derived from the IPv6 destination address of the inner packet (which is in the format of a 6to4 address), by extracting the 32 bits immediately following the IPv6 destination address's 2002::/16 prefix. The IPv4 source address in the prepended packet header is the IPv4 address of the host or router which is sending the packet over IPv4. The resulting IPv4 packet is then routed to its IPv4 destination address just like any other IPv4 packet.
Q238. Which command do you use to connect a dense-mode domain to a sparse-mode multicast domain?
A. none, because there is no such command
B. ip pim spt-threshold infinity
C. ip pim register dense-mode
D. ip pim dense-mode proxy-register
For IP PIM multicast, Cisco recommends Sparse-Mode over Dense-Mode. In the midst of our network migration, we have a new network operating in Sparse-Mode with Anycast rendezvous point (RP) but our existing network is still operating in Dense-Mode. To bridge two different modes across both PIM domains, we should use the ip pim dense-mode proxy-register command on the interface leading toward the bordering dense mode region. This configuration will enable the border router to register traffic from the dense mode region (which has no concept of registration) with the RP in the sparse mode domain.
Q239. Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
E. Option Number
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.
Q240. Which statement about SSHv2 is true?
A. Routers acting as SSH clients can operate without RSA keys.
B. SSHv2 supports port forwarding and compression.
C. The RSA key pair size must be at least 512.
D. You must configure a default gateway before you enable SSHv2.