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2021 Jul cisco 400-101:
Q471. Which two statements about LDP advertising when Explicit Null is in effect are true? (Choose two.)
A. Penultimate hop popping is disabled.
B. Penultimate hop popping is enabled.
C. It is the default behavior for LDP.
D. It is used for the advertisement of static routes.
E. It is used for the advertisement of connected routes.
Q472. Which option is true about output policing for the control plane?
A. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to the control plane.
B. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent from the control plane.
C. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to and from the control plane.
D. It controls traffic originated from the router.
Q473. External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Q474. Refer to the exhibit.
Which three statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual circuit identifier is 1611 and the virtual circuit is down.
B. The local label for the circuit is 4006.
C. The targeted LDP session to the remote peer is up.
D. The local label for the circuit is 1611.
E. The virtual circuit identifier is 4006 and the virtual circuit is down.
F. The circuit is using MPLS VC type 4.
The number after the vc is the identifier, which is 1611 in this case. Here, the VC status is shown as down.
As shown, the MPLS VC labels: local 4006, remote unassigned shows the local label used is 4006.
The targeted LDP session is up as verified by the “Signalling protocol: LDP, peer 172.16.12.70 up” statement in the output.
Q475. Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two.)
Improve 400-101 ccie routing and switching:
Q476. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Metro Ethernet circuit on the left to the corresponding Service Type category on the right.
Q477. Which two statements about the protected ports feature and the private VLAN feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. The protected ports feature is limited to the local switch.
B. The protected ports feature can isolate traffic between two "protected" ports on different switches.
C. The private VLAN feature is limited to the local switch.
D. The private VLAN feature prevents interhost communication within a VLAN across one or more switches.
Protected Ports (PVLAN Edge) In some network environments, there is a requirement for no traffic to be seen or forwarded between host(s) on the same LAN segment, thereby preventing interhost communications. The PVLAN edge feature provisions this isolation by creating a firewall-like barrier, thereby blocking any unicast, broadcast, or multicast traffic among the protected ports on the switch. Note that the significance of the protected port feature is limited to the local switch, and there is no provision in the PVLAN edge feature to isolate traffic between two "protected" ports located on different switches. For this purpose, the PVLAN feature can be used.
Q478. Which two statements are true about AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AAA can use RADIUS, TACACS+, or Windows AD to authenticate users.
B. If RADIUS is the only method configured in AAA, and the server becomes unreachable,
the user will be able to log in to the router using a local username and password.
C. If the local keyword is not included and the AAA server does not respond, then authorization will never be possible and the connection will fail.
D. AAA can be used to authenticate the enable password with a AAA server.
AAA can be used to authenticate user login and the enable passwords.
Example 1: Same Exec Authentication Methods for All Users
Once authenticated with:
aaa authentication login default group radius local
All users who want to log in to the access server have to be authorized using Radius (first method) or local database (second method).
aaa authorization exec default group radius local
Note. On the AAA server, Service-Type=1 (login) must be selected.
Note. With this example, if the local keyword is not included and the AAA server does not respond, then authorization will never be possible and the connection will fail.
Q479. What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. In order to troubleshoot microbursts, you need a packet sniffer that can capture traffic over a long period of time and allow you to analyze it in the form of a graph which displays the saturation points (packet rate during microbursts versus total available bandwidth). You can eventually trace it to the source causing the bursts (e.g. stock trading applications).
Reference: Adam, Paul (2014-07-12). All-in-One CCIE V5 Written Exam Guide (Kindle Locations 989-994). Kindle Edition.
Q480. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?
A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.
B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.
C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.
D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.
To disable sequence numbers, use the no service sequence-numbers global configuration command.
This example shows part of a logging display with sequence numbers enableD. 000019: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36)
In this example we see the absence of sequence numbers on the log messages.
Not A. In this example there are no time stamps or uptimes shown in the logs.
Not B. The default buffer size is 4096 bytes.
Not C. The logging level in this example is informational (level 6), which will display levels 0-6 in the logs. Warnings are level 4.