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2021 Jul cisco 400-101:

Q51. Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)

A. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network address boundaries. 

B. EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes. 

C. The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASBR. 

D. The summary-address command under the router process configures manual summarization on RIPv2 devices. 

E. The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an unknown subnet on a network with other known subnets. 

Answer: A,E 

Q52. Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It must be configured on each router in a network. 

B. It supports ATM LAN emulation. 

C. The existing network is unaware that NetFlow is running. 

D. It uses SIP to establish sessions between neighbors. 

E. It provides resource utilization accounting. 

Answer: C,E 


NetFlow identifies packet flows for both ingress and egress IP packets. It does not involve any connection-setup protocol, either between routers or to any other networking device or end station. NetFlow does not require any change externally--either to the packets themselves or to any networking device. NetFlow is completely transparent to the existing network, including end stations and application software and network devices like LAN switches. Also, NetFlow capture and export are performed independently on each internetworking device; NetFlow need not be operational on each router in the network. NetFlow data provides fine-grained metering for highly flexible and detailed resource utilization accounting. For example, flow data includes details such as IP addresses, packet and byte counts, timestamps, type-of-service, and application ports. Service providers might utilize the information for billing based on time-of-day, bandwidth usage, application usage, or quality of service. Enterprise customers might utilize the information for departmental chargeback or cost allocation for resource utilization. 


Q53. Which two options are contained in the MSG part of a syslog message? (Choose two.) 

A. TAG field 

B. CONTENT field 

C. three-digit priority value 

D. IP address of the sending device 

E. TLS port number 

Answer: A,B 

Q54. Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts? 

A. Implement larger buffers. 

B. Install a faster CPU. 

C. Install a faster network interface. 

D. Configure a larger tx-ring size. 

Answer: A 


You can't avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host's application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage 

microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts. 

Q55. Which three types of address-family configurations are supported in EIGRP named mode? (Choose three.) 

A. address-family ipv4 unicast 

B. address-family vpnv4 

C. address-family ipv6 unicast 

D. address-family ipv6 multicast 

E. address-family vpnv6 

F. address-family ipv4 multicast 

Answer: A,C,F 

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Update ccie written dumps 400-101:

Q56. Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.) 

A. command authorization 

B. network access authorization 

C. network accounting 

D. network access authentication 

Answer: A,D 


Configuring the Local Database 

This section describes how to manage users in the local database. You can use the local database for CLI access authentication, privileged mode authentication, command authorization, network access authentication, and VPN authentication and authorization. You cannot use the local database for network access authorization. The local database does not support accounting. 

Reference: tml 

Q57. Refer to the exhibit. 

If IS-IS is configured utilizing default metrics, what is the cost for Router 4 to reach the network? 

A. 1 

B. 20 

C. 30 

D. 63 

Answer: C 


By default, every link is an IS-IS network has a metric of 10. 

Q58. Which statement about the bgp soft-reconfig-backup command is true? 

A. It requires BGP to store all inbound and outbound updates. 

B. It overrides soft reconfiguration for devices that support inbound soft reconfiguration. 

C. When the peer is unable to store updates, the updates are implemented immediately. 

D. It provides soft reconfiguration capabilities for peers that are unable to support route refresh. 

E. It provides outbound soft reconfiguration for peers. 

Answer: D 

Q59. What is a disadvantage of using aggressive mode instead of main mode for ISAKMP/IPsec establishment? 

A. It does not use Diffie-Hellman for secret exchange. 

B. It does not support dead peer detection. 

C. It does not support NAT traversal. 

D. It does not hide the identity of the peer. 

Answer: D 


IKE phase 1's purpose is to establish a secure authenticated communication channel by using the Diffie–Hellman key exchange algorithm to generate a shared secret key to encrypt further IKE communications. This negotiation results in one single bi-directional ISAKMP Security Association (SA). The authentication can be performed using either pre-shared key (shared secret), signatures, or public key encryption.Phase 1 operates in either Main Mode or Aggressive Mode. Main Mode protects the identity of the peers; Aggressive Mode does not. 


Q60. Refer to the exhibit. 

This network is configured with PIM, and the RPF check has failed toward the multicast source. Which two configuration changes must you make to router R3 to enable the RPF check to pass? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source through the tunnel interface. 

B. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the tunnel interface. 

C. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the Ethernet interface. 

D. Remove the command ip prim bidir-enable from the R3 configuration. 

Answer: A,B