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2021 Nov 400-101 ccie routing and switching written exam fee:
Q431. Which three features does GETVPN support to improve deployment and scalability? (Choose three.)
A. configuration of multiple key servers to work cooperatively
B. allowing traffic to be discarded until a group member registers successfully
C. local exceptions in the traffic classification ACL
D. GDOI protocol configuration between group members and the key server
E. redundant IPsec tunnels between group members and the key server
F. redundant multicast replication streaming through the use of a bypass tunnel
Q432. Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ABR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
LSA Type 4 (called Summary ASBR LSA) is generated by the ABR to describe an ASBR to routers in other areas so that routers in other areas know how to get to external routes through that ASBR.
Q433. Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the IP MTU of tunnel 0?
In the case of the GRE tunnel interface, the IP maximum transmission unit (MTU) is 24 bytes less than the IP MTU of the real outgoing interface. For an Ethernet outgoing interface that means the IP MTU on the tunnel interface would be 1500 minus 24, or 1476 bytes.
Reference: A spoke site that is connected to Router-A cannot reach a spoke site that is connected to Router-B, but both spoke sites can reach the hub. What is the likely cause of this issue http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/generic-routing-encapsulation-gre/13725-56.html
Q434. How many bytes comprise the system ID within an IS-IS NET?
A. 4 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 8 bytes
D. 16 bytes
E. 20 bytes
Routers are identified with NETs of 8 to 20 bytes. ISO/IEC 10589 distinguishes only three fields in the NSAP address format: a variable-length area address beginning with a single octet, a system ID, and a 1-byte n-selector. Cisco implements a fixed length of 6 bytes for the system ID, which is like the OSPF router ID.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sh tml
Q435. Which timer expiration can lead to an EIGRP route becoming stuck in active?
As noted above, when a route goes into the active state, the router queries its neighbors to find a path to the pertinent network. At this point, the router starts a three minute active timer by which time it must receive replies from all queried neighbors. If a neighbor has feasible successors for the route, it will recalculate its own local distance to the network and report this back. However, if a neighbor does not have a feasible successor, it also goes into active state. In some cases, multiple routers along multiple query paths will go into active state as routers continue to query for the desired route. In most cases, this process will yield responses from all queried routers and the sought after route will transition back into the passive state within the three minute SIA query timer. In the case that none of the queried routers can provide a feasible successor, the route is cleared. In some cases, a response is not received between two neighbor routers because of link failures, congestion or some other adverse condition in either the network or on the queried router, and the three minute active timer expires on the router originating the query. When this happens, the querying router that did not receive a response logs a “DUAL-3-SIA” or “stuck-in-active” error for the route and then drops and restarts its adjacency with the non-responding router
Up to the immediate present ccie written dumps 400-101:
Q436. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP element on the left to the corresponding definition on the right.
Q437. Which BGP aggregate address configuration advertises only the aggregate address, with attributes inherited from the more specific routes?
A. summary-only as-set
router bgp 300
neighbor 188.8.131.52 remote-as 100
neighbor 184.108.40.206 remote-as 200
neighbor 220.127.116.11 remote-as 400
aggregate-address 18.104.22.168 255.0.0.0 summary-only as-set
!--- With the as-set configuration command, the aggregate
!--- inherits the attributes of the more-specific routes.
Q438. Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
Q439. Which two statements about the function of PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)
A. It registers directly connected source to the PIM rendezvous point.
B. It sends PIM asserts on the interface of the outgoing interface list.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
E. It sends IGMP queries.
Q440. Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two.)
A. The next-hop routers must be the same.
B. Route reflectors must be enabled.
C. All attributes must have the same values.
D. MPLS must be enabled.
E. The next-hop routers must be different.