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2021 Apr 400-101 vce

Q51. Which TCP mechanism prevents the sender from sending data too quickly for the receiver to process? 

A. Congestion control 

B. Error detection 

C. Selective acknowledgement 

D. Flow control 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In data communications, flow control is the process of managing the rate of data transmission between two nodes to prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver. It provides a mechanism for the receiver to control the transmission speed, so that the receiving node is not overwhelmed with data from transmitting node. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flow_control_(data) 


Q52. What are three required commands when you enable source-specific multicast for addresses in the range 233.0.0.0/8? (Choose three.) 

A. ip multicast-routing 

B. ip igmp version 3 

C. ip pim ssm-range 233.0.0.0/8 

D. ip igmp version 2 

E. ip pim ssm-range default 

F. set routing-options multicast ssm-groups 233.0.0.0/8 

Answer: A,B,C 


Q53. What are two benefits of NVI? (Choose two.) 

A. It provides scalability by maintaining a NAT table on every interface. 

B. It can dynamically create a static route to the NAT pool for translation. 

C. It supports the use of route maps for policy-based NAT. 

D. It supports the use of a single interface for translations. 

E. It injects a route into the existing routing protocol that directs translation to the NAT pool. 

Answer: A,B 


Q54. Where should the passive-interface command be used? 

A. Under the routing process for interfaces that need to be routed, but prevented from peering 

B. under the routing process for interfaces that need to be routed and allowed to peer 

C. under the interface configuration for interfaces that need to be routed, but prevented from peering 

D. under the interface configuration for interfaces that need to be routed and allowed to peer 

E. under the VTY configuration within global configuration mode 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Passive-interface is a feature you enable on a per interface basis which allows a particular interface to participate in a routing process but prevents that interface from forming neighbor relationships by not sending hello packets and discarding received hello packets. 


Q55. Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture? 

A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces. 

B. It can store only packet data. 

C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress. 

D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Restrictions for Embedded Packet Capture 

. In Cisco IOS Release 12.2(33)SRE, EPC is supported only on 7200 platform. 

. EPC only captures multicast packets on ingress and does not capture the replicated packets on egress. 

. Currently, the capture file can only be exported off the device; for example, TFTP or FTP servers and local disk. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/epc/configuration/15-mt/epc-15-mt-book/nm-packet-capture.html 


Renew 400-101 exam:

Q56. In a nonbackbone OSPF area, all traffic that is destined to the Internet is routed by using a default route that is originated by the ABR. Which change in the configuration of the OSPF area type causes traffic from that area that is destined to the Internet to be dropped? 

A. The OSPF area changes from NSSA to totally stubby area. 

B. The OSPF area changes from NSSA to regular area. 

C. The OSPF area changes from stub area to totally stubby area. 

D. The OSPF area changes from stub area to NSSA. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The ABR for the NSSA generates the default route, but not by default. To force the ABR to generate the default route, use the area <area id> nssa default-information originate command. The ABR generates a Type 7 LSA with the link-state ID 0.0.0.0 and is advertised inside the NSSA. This default route will be propagated inside the NSSA as Type 7 LSA 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13692-21.html#nssas 


Q57. Refer to the exhibit. 

You are configuring the S1 switch for the switch port that connects to the client computer. Which configuration blocks users on the port from using more than 6 Mbps of traffic and marks the traffic for a class of service of 1? 

A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

A. Exhibit A 

B. Exhibit B 

C. Exhibit C 

D. Exhibit D 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Only option A specified that the exceed and violate actions are set to drop for traffic over the CIR of 6 Mbps, and is also configured to set all traffic with a COS of 1 using the “set cos1” command. 


Q58. Where must the spanning-tree timers be configured if they are not using the default timers? 

A. They must be on the root bridge. 

B. They must be on any non-root bridge. 

C. Changing the default timers is not allowed. 

D. Timers must be modified manually on each switch. 

Answer:


Q59. Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.) 

A. Enable NAT-PT globally. 

B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation. 

C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation. 

D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address. 

E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address. 

F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address. 

Answer: B,C,D 

Explanation: 

The detailed steps on configuring NAY-PT is found at the reference link below: 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/i p6-nat_trnsln.html 


Q60. Which CoS value is mapped to DSCP 48 by default? 

A. 6 

B. 7 

C. AF21 

D. AF44 

E. AF41 

F. 46 

Answer: