Q441. Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is learning the 192.168.1.0/24 network from R1 via EIGRP and eBGP. R2 then redistributes EIGRP into OSPF as metric-type 2 with default metrics. Which metric of the route in the R3 routing table?
D. The route is not present in the R3 routing table.
Q442. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two actions can you take to enable CE-1 at site A to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
A. Create a default route for site A on PE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
B. Originate a default route in site B with the next hop set to the PE-2 Internet interface, and import the default route into site A.
C. Create a default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-1 upstream interface.
D. Originate a default route in site A with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to CE-1.
E. Create a static default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
Q443. Which timer expiration can lead to an EIGRP route becoming stuck in active?
As noted above, when a route goes into the active state, the router queries its neighbors to find a path to the pertinent network. At this point, the router starts a three minute active timer by which time it must receive replies from all queried neighbors. If a neighbor has feasible successors for the route, it will recalculate its own local distance to the network and report this back. However, if a neighbor does not have a feasible successor, it also goes into active state. In some cases, multiple routers along multiple query paths will go into active state as routers continue to query for the desired route. In most cases, this process will yield responses from all queried routers and the sought after route will transition back into the passive state within the three minute SIA query timer. In the case that none of the queried routers can provide a feasible successor, the route is cleared. In some cases, a response is not received between two neighbor routers because of link failures, congestion or some other adverse condition in either the network or on the queried router, and the three minute active timer expires on the router originating the query. When this happens, the querying router that did not receive a response logs a “DUAL-3-SIA” or “stuck-in-active” error for the route and then drops and restarts its adjacency with the non-responding router
Q444. Refer to the exhibit.
R1 is configured as shown. R1 is able to establish a neighbor adjacency only with R2. Which addition must you make to the R1 configuration to allow it to establish an adjacency with R3?
A. interface gigabitethernet 0/1
ip address 10.1.0.1 255.255.255.0
ip ospf network point-to-point
B. interface gigabitethernet 0/1
ip address 10.1.0.1 255.255.255.0
ip ospf 1 area 0
C. router ospf 1
network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
D. router ospf 1
area 0 stub
To enable interfaces and networks with OSPF, the networks need to be specified in the network statement. In the configuration shown, only 10.0.0.0/24 has been enabled, we are missing the network connecting to R3 (10.1.0.0/24).
Q445. Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Q446. Which two modes of operation does BFD support? (Choose two.)
A. synchronous mode
B. asynchronous mode
C. demand mode
D. echo mode
E. aggressive mode
F. passive mode
A session may operate in one of two modes: asynchronous mode and demand mode. In
asynchronous mode, both endpoints periodically send Hello packets to each other. If a number of those packets are not received, the session is considered down. In demand mode, no Hello packets are exchanged after the session is established; it is assumed that the endpoints have another way to verify connectivity to each other, perhaps on the underlying physical layer. However, either host may still send Hello packets if needed.
Q447. Refer to the exhibit.
All switches are Cisco switches. Assume that Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled only on switches A and C.
Which information is returned when you issue the command show cdp neighbors on switch C?
A. a limited amount of information about switch B
B. no neighbor details will be returned
C. neighbor details for switch B
D. neighbor details for switch A
E. neighbor details for switch C
CDP is used to discover information on directly connected neighbors only, so in this case SwitchC would only be able to obtain CDP information from SwitchB. However, since SwitchB is not running CDP then no neighbor information will be seen on SwitchC. Same goes for Switch A also in this topology.
Q448. Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field:
Q449. Refer to the exhibit.
What is the polling frequency set by this configuration?
A. 60 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 360 seconds
D. 60 milliseconds
E. 10 milliseconds
The frequency value lists the polling interval, in seconds.
Q450. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.